07 Apr 2023: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 07 April 2023:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
GOVERNANCE
1. Representation in India’s police forces
2. Censoring ‘fake news’
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Japan on Russian Oil
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. India-Bhutan Relations
F. Prelims Facts
1. Indian Space Policy 2023
2. Fortified rice through PDS
G. Tidbits
1. Regulating online gaming
2. Second-hand goods imports
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

2. Censoring ‘fake news’

Syllabus: Government Policies & Interventions for Development

Mains: Freedom of Media in a Democracy

Context: Fact Check by Press Information Bureau (PIB) under IT rules.

Introduction:

  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has notified Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023, amending the IT Rules, 2021.
  • As per the notified rules, the social media platforms and other intermediaries on the Internet would be mandated to take down content that has been “fact-checked” by the PIB fact-check unit and has been flagged as false. 
  • Platforms will not enjoy the legal immunity that they currently benefit from for content posted by their users under section 79 of the Information Technology Act (IT Act), 2000.
    • They can now be called a party in court proceedings. 

Concerns:

  • The notified IT Rules will have deep implications for free speech and information. 
  • It puts an increased burden upon the intermediaries to comply with the provisions and avoid penalties. This might lead to non-publication of even true events or criticisms if the intermediaries’ fact-finding unit fact-checks the veracity of the content. 
  • This proposal makes the government as the sole arbiter of truth which could result in the censorship of the press.
  • The amendment also lacks any safeguards to prevent PIB’s fact-checking unit’s misuse, promote transparency while “fact-checking”, or limit its scope.

Nut Graf: The Union government has amended the IT Rules, 2021, mandating social media platforms to take down content flagged as false by the PIB fact-check unit. The platforms will no longer enjoy legal immunity for user-generated content and may be called in court proceedings.

Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

1. Japan on Russian Oil

Syllabus: Bilateral, Regional & Global Groupings & Agreements Involving India and/or Affecting India’s Interests

Mains: Impact of the price cap on Russian oil on global oil supply.

Context: Japan circumventing sanctions on Russian oil.

Introduction:

  • Japan has been purchasing oil from Russia at a price above the $60 per barrel price cap imposed by the Western allies. This has led to speculation that Japan may be breaching an agreement reached in 2022 to cap the price of Russian oil.
  • The G-7 countries, the EU, and Australia imposed a $60 per barrel price cap on oil purchased from Russia starting in December 2022. 
  • The move was part of the wider economic sanctions imposed by the West to punish Russia following its invasion of Ukraine. 
  • This was to restrict the amount of money that Russia can make by selling its oil, but without severely affecting the global oil supply. 

Read more on Price cap on Russian Oil

Why is Japan breaking ranks with the West?

  • While many European countries have reduced their dependence on Russian energy supplies, Japan has stepped up its purchases of Russian natural gas over the past year. Japan is the only Group of Seven nation not to supply lethal weapons to Ukraine, and Prime Minister Fumio Kishida was the last G-7 leader to visit Ukraine after Russia’s invasion.
  • Japan got the U.S. to agree to the exception as it needed it to ensure access to Russian energy. The concession shows Japan’s reliance on Russia for fossil fuels.
    • Japan has almost no fossil fuel of its own and relies on imported natural gas and coal for much of its electricity. 
    • Russia accounts for nearly one-tenth of Japan’s natural-gas imports.
  • Japan’s oil import contributes very little to Russia’s overall oil production, which was about 10.7 million barrels per day in 2022, and thus does not significantly subvert the West’s efforts to restrict the Kremlin’s oil revenues. 
  • Japan was granted an exception to the cap for oil purchased from the Sakhalin-2 project in Russia’s Far East. 

Future of price cap:

  • Several countries including India are believed to be paying more than $60 per barrel to purchase oil from Russia. 
  • As oil prices rise, the chances of a rift developing even among signatories to the oil price cap arrangement are growing higher. 
  • Oil traders are subverting sanctions and delivering supplies from Russia for buyers who are willing to pay more than $60 per barrel.
  • Continuing the price cap could be difficult as it works against strong economic incentives and it is impossible to keep track of all shipments in such a large, opaque oil market.
  • Recently, OPEC and Russia decided to cut their oil output by 3.66 million barrels per day, sending oil prices soaring by 6%. 
  • Russian Urals, the flagship crude oil sold by Russia, also soared above $60 per barrel, thus breaching the West’s price cap. 
  • Thus it is difficult for the West to implement the price cap that would keep Russia’s oil revenues in check despite rising oil prices.

Read more on Russia-Ukraine Conflict.

Nut Graf: Japan’s purchase of oil from Russia above the $60 per barrel price cap imposed by the Western allies has led to speculation of a breach of the agreement. Japan relies on Russia for fossil fuels and was granted an exception for oil purchased from the Sakhalin-2 project. 

2. Fortified rice through PDS

Syllabus: GS03-Agriculture

Prelims: Fortification of rice; Sickle-cell anaemia; Public Distribution System

Context: Distribution of fortified rice through PDS.

Key Details:

  • The distribution of fortified rice through the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India is an ongoing initiative by the government to address the issue of malnutrition among the poor and vulnerable sections of society. 
  • Fortified rice with essential micronutrients like iron, zinc, and Vitamin A, is being distributed through the PDS in several states in India. 
  • The distribution of fortified rice through the PDS is being implemented in a phased manner across the country. The government has set a target to distribute fortified rice through the PDS to all states and Union Territories by 2024. 
  • A total of 269 districts in 27 states have started distributing fortified rice under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), achieving a 100% target set for Phase II by March 2023 in the Rice Fortification Programme.
  • The distribution of fortified rice through the PDS is expected to have a significant impact on reducing malnutrition and improving the health and well-being of the poor and vulnerable sections of society, especially women and children.

G. Tidbits

1. Regulating online gaming

  • The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology amended IT Rules, 2021, to regulate “online real money games” where users have to risk money to play.
  • Amended rules prohibit any game that involves betting and wagering, and entail a framework of multiple self-regulatory organisations (SROs) comprising industry representatives, educationists, and other experts such as child experts, psychology experts, etc. to determine whether a real-money game is permitted or not.
  • The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 require real money gaming platforms to register with a self-regulatory body (SRB) that will determine whether or not the game is “permissible”. 
  • Under the rules, the SROs will have to publish a framework to safeguard users against the risk of gaming addiction, financial loss and financial fraud on its website.
    • The framework should include repeated warning messages at a higher frequency beyond a reasonable duration for a gaming session and provision to enable a user to exclude himself upon user-defined limits being reached for time or money spent.
  • The Ministry of Information & Broadcasting issued a fresh advisory warning media entities, platforms and online intermediaries against airing advertisements of betting and gambling platforms.

2. Second-hand goods imports

  • The import policy for second-hand goods in the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 outlines a new category of unrestricted imports for goods brought into the country for the purpose of repair, refurbishing, re-conditioning or re-engineering, with an intent to re-export them.
  • It also paves the way for the import of used electronics and IT goods with certain restrictions.
  • Such imports will be conditional upon importers ensuring that any waste generated during the repair or refurbishing process is treated as per domestic laws and environmental, safety and health norms.
  • This move is expected to encourage reconditioning and refurbishment activities for re-exports. 

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements with regard to RBI’s monetary policy: (Level–Easy) 
  1. In May 2015, the RBI Act was amended to provide a legislative mandate to the central bank to operate the country’s monetary policy framework.
  2. The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be binding on the Bank.
  3. Section 45ZB of the act says the MPC shall consist of 5 members.

Choose the correct code:

  1. Only one statement is wrong
  2. Two statements are wrong
  3. All statements are wrong
  4. None of the statements is wrong
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Statement 01 is incorrect, The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016,  to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee.
  • Statement 02 is correct, Section 45ZB lays down that “the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target”. The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be binding on the Bank.
  • Statement 03 is incorrect, Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Union Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016. 
Q2. Consider the following statements with regard to the Foreign Contribution 
Regulation Act: (Level–Moderate)
  1. The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
  2. Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for five years.
  3. The applicant should also not have been prosecuted for or convicted of creating communal tension or disharmony.

Choose the correct code:

  1. 1 & 3 only
  2. 2 & 3 only
  3. 1 & 2 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Statement 01 is correct, The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
  • Statement 02 is incorrect, the Union government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct.
    • Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
  • Statement 03 is correct, According to the FCRA, the applicant must be a real person and must not have been prosecuted or convicted for using inducement or force to convert someone from one religion to another. Additionally, they should not have been involved in creating communal tension or disharmony and should not be involved or likely to be involved in propagating sedition.
Q3. Which of the following places is/are included in the Tourism Ministry’s ‘Saptha Moksha 
Puri’ initiative? (Level – Difficult)
  1. Ayodhya
  2. Mathura
  3. Maya (Haridwar)
  4. Kashi (Varanasi)
  5. Kanchi Avantika (Ujjain)
  6. Puri
  7. Kedarnath

Choose the correct code:

  1. 1, 4 & 5 only
  2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6 only
  3. 2, 4, 5, 6 & 7 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Ministry of Tourism is promoting tourist destinations of India, including the Saptha Moksha Puri (Seven Liberation destinations), viz., Ayodhya, Mathura, Maya (Haridwar), Kashi (Varanasi), Kanchi Avantika (Ujjain), Puri (Odisha) and Dwaravati (Dwaraka, Gujarat), in a holistic manner. 
  • It undertakes promotional campaigns in domestic and global markets through electronic, print and digital media to promote the various tourist destinations and products of the country. 
Q4. Which of the following is not a criterion to be recognized as a national 
party in India? (Level – Easy)
  1. It is ‘recognised’ in four or more states.
  2. If its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid votes in at least 4 states (in the latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections) and the party has at least 4 MPs in the last LS polls.
  3. If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the LS from at least 3 states.
  4. If it secures 8% of the total valid votes polled in the country at a General Election to the LS.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation: As per the Election Commission of India, a political party shall be eligible to be recognized as a National Party if:-

  • It secures at least 06 percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
  • In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.

Or

  • It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People and these members are elected from at least three different States.
  • A party gets recognition as a State Party in four or more States.
Q5. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following 
statements is correct? (Level – Moderate) (PYQ-CSE-2019)
  1. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
  2. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
  3. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
  4. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • In most states, initially, the ceilings were imposed on individual and not family holdings, enabling landowners to divide up their holdings ‘notionally’ in the names of relatives merely to avoid the ceiling. So, Option A is wrong.
  • A large number of exemptions to the ceiling limits were permitted by most states following the Second Plan recommendations that certain categories of land could be exempted from ceilings. These were tea, coffee and rubber plantations, orchards, specialised farms, etc. So, Option D is wrong.
  • C is a ‘hyperbole’ wrong statement. Land reform is not responsible for cash crop cultivation becoming predominant in India. Besides, the majority of India’s area under cultivation is food grains and cereals. (and not cash crops) as per Table 3, page 101 of Economic Survey 2017-18. Thus, B is the most suitable answer.

CNA 07 April 2023:- Download PDF Here

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