CNA 29 Sep 2022:- Download PDF Here
TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. GS 1 Related B. GS 2 Related POLITY 1. Law on Free Speech 2. Mercy Petition C. GS 3 Related INTERNAL SECURITY 1. Centre bans PFI and Affiliates D. GS 4 Related E. Editorials DISASTER MANAGEMENT 1. In nature’s warning signs, a nudge to riparian states GEOGRAPHY 1. Rediscovering the Bay of Bengal ECONOMY 1. Automation has impacted lower-level jobs in banks F. Prelims Facts 1. Buddhist Caves in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve G. Tidbits 1. National Games of India 2022 2. Attorney General for India H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
A. GS 1 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
B. GS 2 Related
Syllabus: Fundamental Rights and Judicial Activism
Mains: Reasonable restrictions on ‘right to free speech’
Context: The Supreme Court recently decided to commence with the hearing of pleas pertaining to the limits of the right to freedom of speech and expression for public functionaries, on 15th November 2022.
Introduction:
- Recently, a 5-Judge Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court indicated that restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, 1950, are to be determined on a case-to-case basis.
- This is because it is “difficult” to frame general guidelines in “thin air” to restrict Government Ministers, MPs, MLAs or public leaders, including political party presidents, from making unguarded, derogatory and hurtful statements in public.
Background:
- The case emanates from the Bulandshahar rape incident wherein the then Minister of the State of Uttar Pradesh Azam Khan had trivialised the act by dismissing the incident as a ‘political conspiracy and nothing else’.
- Thereafter the survivors filed a writ petition before the Apex Court seeking action against Khan. While directing Mr. Khan to submit an unconditional apology, the apex court had noted that the case raises serious concerns regarding state obligation and freedom of speech and expression and a reference was made to a Constitution Bench.
Supreme Observations:
- The Supreme Court bench observed that “reasonable restrictions” on the right to free speech under Article 19(1) (a) were already there under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. And whether it was right on the part of the court to impose a further law on free speech over and above the restrictions already imposed under Article 19(2).
- The Supreme Court noted that the Constitution does not permit stipulation of restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression beyond those mentioned in Article 19(2).
- Solicitor General Mr. Tushar Mehta conceded that the threshold of restriction to freedom of speech and expression for public functions would be much higher than the common person, but he expressed concern that it might not be fit to judicially define the contours of such restrictions beyond those provided in Article 19(2) of the Constitution.
Way Forward:
- There are other remedies available like civil/criminal injunctions, torts, general laws, etc. against repeated violations by a public functionary against people.
- Foreign jurisdictions practise “self-regulation” guidelines for public functionaries, conscious of the fact that their words have a far greater impact than that of an ordinary person. India could borrow that model and set guidelines on how “a public functionary should behave publicly”.
- The Supreme Court shall examine the question of whether any restriction, other than those permissible under Article 19(2), can be imposed on the right guaranteed under Article 19 (1) (a) on the ground that such speech violates some other fundamental right of an individual.
Nut Graf: Freedom of speech as a right should not be at the cost of social decency or the right to live with dignity. A public functionary should be more guarded in their speech as any derogatory and hurtful statements by them defeat the concept of constitutional compassion and also the conception of constitutional sensitivity.
Syllabus: Provisions for Checks & Balances in Indian Constitution
Mains: Pardoning powers of President and Governors.
Context: The Supreme Court criticised the delay on the part of the government to decide on a mercy petition.
Background:
- A former constable of Punjab Police, Balwant Singh Rajoana was convicted for his role in the explosion outside the Punjab civil secretariat that killed Beant Singh on August 31, 1995.
- Sixteen others were also killed in the bombing. A special court that convicted him sentenced him to death in July 2007 and this was upheld by the Punjab and Haryana High Court in October 2010.
- Rajoana filed the mercy petition in 2012.
Supreme Court on the delay:
- In 2019, the Union government decided to spare his life in commemoration of the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.
- In May 2022, the Supreme Court ordered the Union government to decide on the mercy petition of Rajoana, preferably within two months.
- Expressing displeasure over the delay despite missing the 2-month deadline, the Supreme Court on 28 September 2022, gave the Union government two days time to record the progress made in addressing the mercy request of Rajoana.
- In 2021, Solicitor General Tushar Mehta had specifically drawn the Court’s attention to the gravity of the facts in the case while highlighting charges of involvement of Khalistani elements in the crime. He had said that appeals of other co-accused were pending in the apex court.
- The court had said the law was settled that once the government decided to recommend a Presidential pardon for a man, the pendency of appeals in the Supreme Court of his co-accused cannot delay the process initiated under Article 72 (Presidential pardon) of the Constitution.
About Mercy Petition:
- Mercy petition to the President is the last constitutional resort a convict can take when he is sentenced by a court of law.
- It is done under Article 72 of the Constitution of India.
- Similarly, the power to grant pardon is conferred upon the Governors of States under Article 161 of the Constitution of India.
- Previously, the governor could not pardon the death sentence. But recently on 3rd August 2021, the Supreme Court held that the Governor of a State can pardon prisoners, including death row ones, even before they have served a minimum of 14 years of a prison sentence.
- The recent judgement regarding the Governor’s power to pardon overrides a provision in the Code of Criminal Procedure (Section 433A) which mandates that a prisoner’s sentence can be remitted only after 14 years of jail.
- Both the President and Governor are required to act on the advice of the appropriate government–the Central and State governments. They cannot exercise their discretion with regard to their powers under Articles 72 and 161.
- The President can either accept or reject the mercy plea as per the advice of the council of ministers.
- However, the Constitution doesn’t provide for a specified time limit to accept/reject the mercy petition.
- President’s pardon/rejection/delay is also subjected to judicial review.
Nut Graf: The pardoning power is founded on the consideration of public good and is to be exercised on the grounds of public welfare, which is the legitimate objective of all punishments. The pardoning power is an act of grace and humanity in the course of law. Unnecessary hurdles and delays in approving the mercy petition can cause severe discomfort to both the convicts and the victims.
C. GS 3 Related
1. Centre bans PFI and Affiliates
Syllabus: Institutional Framework to Tackle Challenge of Internal Security
Mains: Multidimensional challenges posed by unlawful organisations.
Context: The Union government declared the Popular Front of India (PFI) and its front organisations, including its student wing, the Campus Front of India (CFI), an “unlawful association” under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA).
Introduction:
- Recently, the National Investigation Agency searched and raided several locations across the country and arrested at least 45 people linked to the Popular Front of India (PFI) organisation.
- On September 28, 2022, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs banned the PFI for five years along with eight associates or front organisations including Rehab India Foundation (RIF), Campus Front of India (CFI), All India Imams Council (AIIC), National Confederation of Human Rights Organisation (NCHRO), National Women’s Front, Junior Front, Empower India Foundation and Rehab Foundation, Kerala.
- The ban left out the SDPI (Social Democratic Party of India), the political arm of the PFI.
- The Ministry issued another order empowering the States to notify places associated with the PFI and its front organisations where unlawful activity was taking place.
Reasons behind the ban:
- The Ministry of Home Affairs banned PFI by invoking UAPA, claiming that the PFI and its affiliates pose a “major threat to internal security of the country” and are connected to terrorist organisations like ISIS.
- The State governments of Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka and Gujarat had previously recommended a ban on the PFI.
- More than 1,400 criminal cases have been registered against leaders and activists of PFI and its affiliates across the country over the years.
- The enforcement agencies allege that the PFI’s funding source was also dubious. During the investigation, the Income Tax Department found that deposits with respect to 36 of the 85 bank accounts of the PFI were not supported by the respective financial profile of account holders.
- According to the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, the SIMI (Students Islamic Movement of India) and Jamaat-ul-Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB), both of which are outlawed organisations, have leaders among the PFI’s founding members.
- PFI had a number of occasions where it had connections with international terrorist organisations like the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS).
- The ministry said that the associates have a ‘hub and spoke’ relationship with the PFI acting as the hub and utilising the mass outreach and fundraising capacity of its associates for strengthening its capability for unlawful activities and these associates or as ‘roots and capillaries’ through which the PFI is fed and strengthened.
- The MHA stated that while “the PFI and its associates operate openly as socio-economic, educational, and political organisations, they have been pursuing a covert agenda to radicalise a specific segment of society, working to undermine the concept of democracy, and showing sheer disrespect towards the constitutional authority and constitutional set-up of the country.”
What does this ‘ban’ under UAPA mean?
- The Ministry will now set up a tribunal under the UAPA to try the case where PFI could defend its case against the ban.
- The declaration of the PFI and its affiliates as “unlawful associations” grants law enforcement agencies the right to search the premises of such organisations, arrest members, examine their books of account, confiscate assets and freeze accounts.
- Section 7 of the UAPA gives the government the power to “prohibit use of funds” by an “unlawful association”.
- Section 8 of the UAPA gives powers to the Centre to “notify any place which in its opinion is used for the purpose of such unlawful association”. The “place” here includes a house or a building, or a part thereof, or even a tent or a vessel.
Challenges:
- PFI does not maintain a record of its members, it is challenging for authorities to identify PFI members and take action against them.
- These anonymous members who manage to escape the clutches of NIA or other agencies may resurface in a new avatar and a new outfit a few months or years later, similar to what happened after SIMI was banned.
- With the aid of technology, these outlawed groups and their members are able to operate secretly and covertly while carrying out their propaganda and radicalization efforts.
- It will be difficult for the NIA and other agencies to monitor all of these groups and their members’ online activity, particularly those of the anonymous members.
Nut Graf: Allegations against the PFI include engaging in anti-national actions such as raising money from India and abroad to support terrorist attacks, setting up training camps to provide armed training and radicalising people to join outlawed groups like ISIS. Banning an organisation gives the authorities power to check and curb any illegal activities under various laws including the UAPA. It also serves as a deterrent to others who might be inclined to follow their path.
D. GS 4 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
E. Editorials
1. In nature’s warning signs, a nudge to riparian states
Syllabus: Disaster and disaster management
Mains: Impact of floods, customary international laws dealing with the mitigation of floods and the need for better coordination between the riparian states.
Context: In the wake of increased instances of floods across the world, this article talks about the need for all riparian states to come together and address the issue.
Background
- In recent times there has been an increase in the magnitude, frequency and intensity of floods across the globe.
- Due to the recent floods, about one-third of Pakistan is witnessing devastation and is suffering from the spread of infectious diseases and a severe shortage of potable water.
- In June 2022, the state of Assam saw one of the worst floods in its history as it affected about 30 districts of the state.
- Additionally, some parts of Assam and Bihar experience recurring floods which have become a roadblock to undertaking measures which are aimed at poverty alleviation and achieving Millennium Development Goals.
- Flooding is considered to be a natural phenomenon across the world that cannot be prevented completely. However, the impact of floods is aggravated by the lack of transparency in the sharing of hydrological information between the riparian states.
- Further, there is also a lack of sharing of information about the activities undertaken by one riparian state that will have transboundary effects on other riparian states.
Read more about – Floods in India
Current international laws
- As per conventional international law, “no state has to use its territory in a manner that causes harm to another state while using a shared natural resource”.
- This mandates a binding obligation on all the states to not release water in such a way that it causes flooding in other states which share common river water.
- This obligation acts as a foundation for other procedural conventions that regulate the management of floods such as notification of planned measures, the exchange of crucial information, and also public participation.
- The International Court of Justice (ICJ), in the Pulp Mills on the River Uruguay case, 2010 (Argentina vs Uruguay) upheld that undertaking a Transboundary Environmental Impact Assessment (TEIA) of projects on the shared watercourse is part of customary international law.
- The ICJ also held that the acting state must inform the affected parties about the outcomes of the TEIA conducted such that all parties have participated in the process of ensuring that the assessment is complete, and the project can be considered with full knowledge.
Floods along the Brahmaputra and its associated concerns
- In the case of the Brahmaputra river, China acts as an upper riparian state and countries like India and Bangladesh act as lower riparian states.
- China is considered to be enjoying a certain degree of leverage as compared to lower riparian states.
- During the monsoon season, the issue of flooding has been a recurrent issue in the past several years in Assam and other Northeastern parts of India.
- Lower riparian states like India and Bangladesh are facing this issue due to the large-scale construction of dams by upper riparian state China.
- The excessive release of water from the dams of China which are against the conventional international norms has the potential to increase the impact of flooding in parts of India in the future.
- The major concern of India is that there is no comprehensive sub-basin or all basin-level regulation or law to tackle the issue of water management of Brahmaputra.
- Further, both India and China are not part of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Non-Navigational Uses of International Watercourses (UNWC) 1997 and the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes 1992 which is also known as Water Convention.
- Article 27 of UNWC states that “Watercourse States shall, individually and, jointly, take all appropriate measures to prevent or mitigate conditions that may be harmful to other watercourse States, whether resulting from natural causes or human conduct, such as floods or ice conditions, water-borne diseases, siltation, erosion, salt-water intrusion, drought or desertification.”
- Further, both India and China are not part of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Non-Navigational Uses of International Watercourses (UNWC) 1997 and the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE) on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes 1992 which is also known as Water Convention.
- As there is no regulation or law, India totally depends on the memorandum of understanding (MoU) which it signed with China in 2013 with an aim to share hydrological information during the flooding season i.e. June to September.
- However, this MoU does not allow India access to urbanisation and deforestation measures undertaken on the Chinese side of the river basin.
- This makes it important for India to become a part of UNWC or the Water Convention which can help India to negotiate a bilateral treaty on the Brahmaputra and at the same time, it is also crucial for India to make sure that there is no obligation on the insertion of a dispute settlement mechanism provision.
Case of flooding between India and Nepal
- The issue of flooding is also a recurring problem in the Koshi and Gandak river basins that are shared by India and Nepal.
- The frequency, magnitude and intensity of floods have increased in the recent past due to increased seasonal precipitation and the melting of glaciers due to global warming and other human-induced factors like the changes in land use and land cover patterns in the river basins of Nepal (Terai) and Bihar.
- It is essential for both the riparian states to realise that the river basins are single entities, which helps in enabling a holistic approach to improve flood risk management.
- In this context, the India-Nepal Koshi agreement 1954 which was revised in 1966 aimed at mitigating the impact of floods and the treaty-based joint bodies have played a key role in refining the early warning systems for flood forecasting.
- However, India still considers the information on transboundary rivers as classified information, which has become a key impediment in enhancing cross-border flood warning systems.
Read more about India-Nepal flood management in CNA dated Aug 6, 2021.
Nut graf: Against the backdrop of increased instances of cataclysmic floods across the world due to climate change and human-induced factors it has become extremely important for all the riparian states to come together and comply with all the procedural norms in accordance with the no-harm rule to mitigate the impact of floods.
1. Rediscovering the Bay of Bengal
Syllabus: Geographical features, the location changes in critical geographical features and the effects of such changes.
Prelims: About Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS) and BIMSTEC
Mains: Significance of the Bay of Bengal and CBS, existing challenges in the region and the way forward
Context: This article discusses the rising significance of the Bay of Bengal, various challenges associated with it and the role of the Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS).
Significance of Bay of Bengal
Image Source: WorldAtlas
- Trade and commerce: The Bay of Bengal has been a key hub for trade and commerce in the Indian Ocean Region since time immemorial.
- The Bay of Bengal has acted as a channel between the East and the West in terms of not just for trade but also for the exchange of culture.
- Geo-economics and geopolitics: The increased focus, reorientation and realignment of global economic and military powers towards the Indo-Pacific and Asia have further increased the significance of the Bay of Bengal region.
- Economic significance: The Bay of Bengal region houses key sea lanes of communication that are crucial for global economic security and energy security and provides impetus to the economies of several countries in the region.
- Maritime domain: The Bay of Bengal has a huge potential for greater regional cooperation in the environmentally friendly exploration of marine and energy resources.
- The region is home to a biodiverse marine environment and unique geological features as it is a partially enclosed sea.
- The Bay of Bengal also receives water from a few of the world’s largest and most important rivers.
- Several rare and endangered marine species and mangroves, which are important for the conservation of the ecology and especially for the fishing sector are found in this area.
Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS)
- The Prime Minister of India announced the establishment of the Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS) at Nalanda University during the fourth BIMSTEC summit in 2018.
- CBS will facilitate collaborations in a wide range of areas which include geo-economics, geopolitics, ecology, trade and connectivity, maritime security, cultural heritage, and blue economy with an aim to unlock the total potential of the Bay of Bengal region.
- CBS will also help in strengthening India’s overall framework for maritime engagement which promotes sustainable economic growth for all by advancing closer maritime ties.
- The setting up of CBS has also demonstrated India’s commitment to fostering constructive agendas by promoting collaboration and establishing platforms for all those with a shared interest in the region.
Challenges associated with the Bay of Bengal region
- Non-convention threats such as terrorism and challenges arising due to climate change have become more prevalent in the Bay of Bengal region.
- Also, there has been a rapid transformation in the region’s maritime environment as the major powers have increased their economic and geopolitical influence on the region.
- The political and cultural engagement in the region along with the economic competition between the countries have taken on new dimensions.
- The crisis in the region on account of widespread exploitation is causing large-scale extinction of species which will have severe implications on the biodiversity of the region.
- Challenges such as population growth, changes in land use patterns, excessive exploitation of resources, salinisation of water, and increase in sea levels due to climate change are putting more substantial pressure on the region’s environment.
- Further, in recent times, newer challenges such as operational discharge from small and medium feeder ships, shipping collisions, unintentional oil spills, industrial waste pollution, and the accumulation of non-biodegradable plastic waste are also resulting in aggravation of the crisis in the region.
- All the above causes have resulted in the formation of a dead zone in the region and are impacting the mangrove trees in the region which act as a barrier against various natural calamities such as cyclones and tsunamis.
Way forward
- There is a need for establishing platforms such as CBS for undertaking focused and interdisciplinary studies to understand various existing challenges and formulate strategies to address them to ensure sustainable development of the region.
- All the neighbouring countries must mobilise funds to support and promote skill-building, research, and training.
- Also, it is crucial for the neighbouring countries to come together, develop partnerships and cooperate as the maritime domain is interrelated, interdependent and transnational in nature which requires the engagement and expertise of diverse governments and organisations.
- Issues with respect to maritime safety, security and connectivity, and illegal fishing need to be addressed immediately.
- Further, there is a need for boosting investments in the maritime connectivity sector and standardising data sharing between all the stakeholders.
- The regional marine entities must work towards balancing various opportunities and goals on a national, regional, and international scale.
Nut graf: The marine ecosystem in the Bay of Bengal region is undergoing an unprecedented crisis on account of large-scale environmental exploitation and geopolitical unrest. This requires rethinking the strategy employed by all the littoral nations and collaborative efforts to address the common and shared challenges in the region.
1. Automation has impacted lower-level jobs in banks
Syllabus: Indian Economy and issues relating to employment.
Mains: The impact of the introduction of modern technologies on the recruitment of manpower in the banking sector
Context: Recently the Union Finance Ministry has asked the heads of public sector banks for a plan to enhance the employee count in banks.
Details
- According to various reports, the vacancies for clerical posts in banks have reduced significantly in recent years.
- Studies also indicate that there is a decline in the interest for bank jobs, as the registrations of candidates for recruitment have seen a substantial dip.
- In March 2022, the All India Bank Employees’ Association undertook a strike asking for an increase in the recruitment of workers.
- The strikes and the reports prove that there exists a problem of declining manpower in the banks of the country and this trend is seen both among Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as well as Private Sector Banks (PVBs).
Reasons for the reduction in the manpower
Studies note that the increase in the usage of ATMs and online and mobile transactions has resulted in the reduction of the number of bank branches thereby reducing the strength of clerical staff.
- Chart 1A provides an idea about the changing trends in the recruitment of staff in PSBs and PVBs.
Image Source: The Hindu
- Chart 1B indicates the reduction in the number of officers, clerks, and sub-staff working in each functioning office of a PSB.
Image Source: The Hindu
- Chart 1C indicates the declining trend among clerks and sub-staff in PVBs.
- Charts 1B and 1C prove that the number of officers has remained constant. However, this high officer ratio is causing disparity between clerical and officer positions.
Image Source: The Hindu
- Chart 2A indicates the number of ATM withdrawals using debit cards in PSBs and PVBs.
- A sharp dip in the withdrawals using ATM withdrawals can be seen post the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020.
- However, the number of withdrawals has failed to reach the pre-pandemic level even after the pandemic.
- The reason for the reduction in the number of withdrawals through ATMs can be explained with Chart 2B which shows that the volume and value of UPI transactions have increased multifold during the pandemic along with an increase in other types of online transactions.
Image Source: The Hindu
- Chart 2C provides an idea about the decrease in the number of new bank branches opened both among the PSBs and PVBs post-2016.
Nut graf: The advent of modern machinery and online banking services has resulted in a reduction of lower-end job recruitments in the banking sector and concerted efforts from the PSBs, PVBs, the Reserve Bank of India and the Ministry of Finance are required to boost the recruitment.
F. Prelims Facts
1. Buddhist Caves in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
Syllabus: GS01-Art and Culture, Buddhism
Prelims: Buddhist Cave Architecture
Context: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) earlier this year discovered Buddhist caves, stupas and Hindu temples at the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
Key Details:
- The ASI discovered 26 Buddhist caves and stupas, and Brahmi inscriptions, dating back to the 2nd century, and Hindu temples from the 9th-11th centuries, and possibly the world’s largest Varaha sculpture also dating to the same period.
- The Varaha sculpture is among the many monolithic sculptures of the 10 incarnations of Lord Vishnu discovered by the ASI.
Image Source: Indian Express
- The exploration took place 84 years after the last such effort in 1938.
- The caves and some of their remains had Chaitya [rounded] doors and stone beds typical of Mahayana Buddhism sites.
- The ASI also found 24 inscriptions in Brahmi text, all dating back to the 2nd-5th centuries.
- The inscriptions mention sites such as Mathura and Kaushambi, and Pavata, Vejabharada and Sapatanaairikaa.
- Inscriptions also mention kings such as Bhimsena, Pothasiri and Bhattadeva.
- The remains of 26 temples date to the Kalachuri period between the 9th and 11th centuries. In addition to this, two Saiva maths have also been documented.
- The Kalachuri dynasty, which spread over parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, is also associated with the earliest Ellora and Elephanta cave monuments.
- Some remains of the Gupta period, such as door jambs and carvings in caves, have also been found.
Read more on Buddhist and Jain Architecture in India.
G. Tidbits
1. National Games of India 2022
- The 2022 National Games of India will be the 36th edition of the National Games of India and will be held in Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot and Bhavnagar in the state of Gujarat between 29 September and 12 October 2022.
- The game’s official mascot is ‘Savaj the Asiatic lion’.
- The official motto of the games is “Celebrating unity through sports”.
- Following the 2015 Kerala edition and the cancellation of the Goa edition, the National Games is being held after seven long years.
- Athletes from 36 units (States and Services Sports Control Board) will compete in 35 disciplines.
- With stress on indigenous sports, mallakhamba and yogasana will make their debuts in the Games.
- The event which was started at Lahore as the Indian Olympic Games in 1924, was held for 12 editions in the pre-Independence era before being rechristened as the National Games, the first edition of which was held at Lucknow in 1948.
- Senior advocate in the Supreme Court of India R Venkataramani was recently appointed as the Attorney General for India for a period of three years with effect from October 1, 2022.
- He will succeed K K Venugopal, whose term will end on September 30.
- Article 76 of the Indian Constitution under Part-V deals with the position of Attorney General of India.
Read more on Attorney General for India.
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Attorney General of India: (Level – Easy)
- The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive.
- Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in the Constitution.
- The AG is debarred from private legal practice.
Choose the correct code:
- 1 & 2 only
- 1 only
- 2 & 3 only
- All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Statement 01 is correct, The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. He is the highest law officer in the country. He can be part of any court in the Indian Territory.
- Statement 02 is correct, There is no fixed term for the Attorney General of India. The Constitution of India mentions no specified tenure for the Attorney General. Similarly, the Constitution also does not mention the procedure and ground of his removal.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, He is not considered a government servant. He can practise privately too as he is not debarred from private legal practice.
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to the tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution: (Level – Easy)
- Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when this schedule became a part of the Indian Constitution.
- The law does not provide a timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
- The members disqualified under the law can’t stand for re-election from the same seat they were representing before the disqualification.
Choose the correct code:
- 1 & 3 only
- 2 only
- 1 & 2 only
- All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Statement 01 is correct, The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly referred to as the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ was inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution.
- Shri Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when this schedule became a part of the Indian Constitution. He served as the sixth prime minister of India from 1984 to 1989.
- Statement 02 is correct, There is no time limit as per the 10th Schedule within which the Presiding Officers should decide on a plea for disqualification due to defection.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, the 10th schedule does not mention any provisions to bar the members disqualified under the law from standing for re-election from the same seat they were representing before the disqualification.
Q3. Consider the following statements with regards to the Chief of Defence Staff in India: (Level – Medium)
- CDS enjoys the rank of Secretary within the Department of Military Affairs.
- Retired service chiefs are not eligible to hold this position.
- The retirement age for the post of CDS is 65 years.
Choose the correct code:
- 1 & 2 only
- 2 & 3 only
- 1 & 3 only
- All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Statement 01 is correct, The Chief of Defence Staff of the Indian Armed Forces is the head and the highest-ranking officer of the Indian Armed Forces. CDS is first among equals, he enjoys the rank of Secretary within the Department of Military Affairs.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, the government of India in June 2022 amended service rules of the armed forces making all serving and recently retired three-star officers — Lt General, Air Marshal and Vice Admiral — under the age of 62 eligible for the post.
- The new rules mean that the recently retired chiefs of services will not be considered due to the upper age limit of 62.
- Statement 03 is correct, The age limit for the CDS’ post is 65 years with no fixed tenure defined, unlike for the Service Chief which is three years of tenure or 62 years of age.
Q4. Which of the following is the motto of the 2022 Indian National Games? (Level – Difficult)
- Get Set Play
- Kheloge Kudoge banoge Lajawaab
- Celebrating Unity through sports
- Faster, Higher, Stronger – Together
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The 2022 National Games of India will be the 36th edition of the National Games of India and the official motto of the games is “Celebrating unity through sports”.
Q5. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of (Level– Difficult) (PYQ-2019)
- Integrated Rural Development Programme
- Lead Bank Scheme
- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
- National Skill Development Mission
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Service area approach (SAA) is a developed version of the ‘area approach’ structure of the Lead Bank Scheme.
- Under the SAA plan, each commercial bank/RRB branch in a rural and semi-urban area is designated to serve 15 to 25 villages for the planned and orderly development of the areas.
- The Lead Bank Scheme is a scheme introduced in 1969 which aims at providing adequate banking and credit in rural areas through a ‘service area approach’.
- Under the Scheme, the service area approach was introduced in 1989 for the planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas.
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
- With the devastating effects of climate change visible, riparian states across the world must comply with all the procedural duties pursuant to the ‘no harm rule’. Examine. (10 Marks; 150 Words) (GS-2; International Relations)
- The technological development, which has made banking easier, has also led to a slowdown in the hiring of staff at banks. Substantiate. (10 Marks; 150 Words) (GS-3; Economy)
Read the previous CNA here.
CNA 29 Sep 2022:- Download PDF Here
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