Question

If $A$ and $B$ are two sets then $(A-B)\cup (B-A)\cap (A\cap B)$ is equal to

• A. Only $A$
• B. $A\cup B$
• C. $(A\cup B)\text{'}$
• D. None of these

Answer 1

The correct option is B

$A\cup B$

Explanation for the correct option:

Find the value of given expression:

$(A–B)\cup (B–A)\cup (A\cap B)=$only $A\cup$ only $B\cup$ both $A$ and $B$

$=A\cup B$

$\therefore (A–B)\cup (B–A)\cup (A\cap B)$ is equal to $A\cup B$

Hence, Option ‘B’ is Correct.