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Question

A body is in translational equilibrium under the action of coplanar forces. If the torque of these forces is zero about a point, is it necessary that it will also be zero about any other point?

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Solution

Yes , if the torque due to forces in translation equillibriumis zero about a point, it will be zero about other point in the plane.


Let us consider a planner lamina of some mass, acted upon byforces F1→, F2→, ... Fi→, etc.Let a force Fi→ act on a ith particle and torque due to Fi→ be zeroat a point Q.Since the body is in translation equillibrium, we have:ΣFi→=0 ...1Again, torque about P is zero. Therefore, we have:Σrpi→×Fi→=0 ...2Now, torque about point Q will be: Σr→Qi×Fi→=Σr→QP+r→Pi×Fi→ From fig. 13=Σr→QP×Fi→+rPi→×Fi→=ΣrQP→×Fi→+ΣrPi→×Fi→=rQP→×ΣFi→+0 From 2=rQP→×0 From 1=0Thus, F→ is zero about any other point Q.

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