The correct option is
C The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes.
![](https://df0b18phdhzpx.cloudfront.net/ckeditor_assets/pictures/1599210/original_44.png)
For a circular loop of radius
R carrying current,
I placed in
x−y plane, with centre at the origin the magnetic field is along its axis i.e., along
z−axis.
Therefore, the magnetic moment is given by,
M=IA
Where,
I= Moment of Inertia
A= Area of circular loop
=πR2
So,
M=I(πR2)
When half of the current loop is bent in
y−z plane, the magnetic moment due to half current loop in
x−y plane is given by,
M1=I(πR22) acting along
z− direction.
Magnetic moment due to remaining half current loop in
y−z plane is given by,
M2=I(πR22) along
x−direction.
Here,
M1=M2=M
Therefore, effective magnetic moment
(M′) due to entire bent current loop,
M′=√M21+M22=√(IπR22)2+(IπR22)2
M′=IπR2√22=M√2
M′<M
This shows, there will be two equal magnetic moments but perpendicular to each other which will add vectorially to give some non-zero value.
Magnetic field on the axis of a current carrying loop is given by,
B=μo4π2πR2I(z2+R2)3/2
For
z>>R,B=μo4π2πR2Iz3
Since the half of the loop is bent in the
y−z plane, therefore net magnetic field due to half loop lying in
z−y plane along
z− axis will decrease. Hence last two options are incorrect.
Final Answer: (a)