A function R on the set N of natural numbers is defined as R={(2n,2n+1):nϵN} The domain of R is
Show that the function f:R∗→R∗ defined by f(x)=1x is one-one, where R∗ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R∗ is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R∗?