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Byju's Answer
Standard XII
Mathematics
Domain and Range of Basic Inverse Trigonometric Functions
A solution of...
Question
A solution of
s
i
n
−
1
(
1
)
−
s
i
n
−
1
(
√
3
/
x
2
)
−
π
/
6
=
0
is
A
x
=
−
√
2
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B
x
=
1
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C
x
=
√
2
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D
x
=
1
/
√
2
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Solution
The correct options are
A
x
=
−
√
2
D
x
=
√
2
Given,
sin
−
1
(
1
)
−
sin
−
1
(
√
3
/
x
2
)
−
π
/
6
=
0
Simplifying, we get
π
2
−
π
6
=
sin
−
1
√
3
x
2
π
3
=
sin
−
1
(
√
3
x
2
)
√
3
2
=
√
3
x
2
x
2
=
2
∴
x
=
±
√
2
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0
Similar questions
Q.
Assertion :
s
i
n
−
1
[
x
−
x
2
2
+
x
3
4
.
.
.
.
]
=
π
/
2
−
c
o
s
−
1
[
x
2
−
x
4
2
+
x
6
4
.
.
.
.
]
for
0
<
|
x
|
<
√
2
has a unique solution. Reason:
t
a
n
−
1
√
x
(
x
+
1
)
+
s
i
n
−
1
√
x
2
+
x
+
1
=
π
/
2
has no solution for
−
√
2
<
x
<
0
Q.
If
sin
−
1
(
x
−
x
2
2
+
x
3
4
−
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
∞
)
+
cos
−
1
(
x
2
−
x
4
2
+
x
6
4
−
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
∞
)
=
π
2
and
0
<
x
<
√
2
then
x
=
Q.
If
sin
−
1
(
x
−
x
2
2
+
x
3
4
−
.
.
.
.
∞
)
+
cos
−
1
(
x
2
−
x
4
2
+
x
6
4
−
.
.
.
.
∞
)
=
π
2
and
0
<
x
<
√
2
then
x
=
Q.
(a) Prove that
sin
[
t
a
n
−
1
1
−
x
2
2
x
+
cos
−
1
1
−
x
2
1
+
x
2
]
=
1
.
(b) If
sin
−
1
(
x
−
x
2
2
+
x
3
4
−
.
.
.
.
.
)
+
cos
−
1
(
x
2
−
x
4
2
+
x
6
4
−
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
)
=
π
2
for
0
<
|
x
|
<
√
2
, then x equals
Q.
If
f
x
=
tan
-
1
1
+
sin
x
1
-
sin
x
,
0
≤
x
≤
π
/
2
,
then
f
'
π
/
6
is
(a) − 1/4
(b) − 1/2
(c) 1/4
(d) 1/2
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