The correct option is
D I, III and IV only
(I.) nn=n×n×…n (n times) >n×(n−1)×(n−2)⋯×1=n!
⇒nn≥n! (∵n≥n−i ∀ i∈[0,n]
(II.) (n!)2=n2×(n−1)2⋯×12=(n×1)×(n−1×2)×(n−2×3)…(2×(n−1))×(1×n) ... (1)
nn=n×n×…n (n times) ... (2)
Here, each term except the first and last terms of (1) are greater than those of (2). For example, 2×(n−1)=2n−2>n ∀ n≥1000
∴(n!)2≥nn.
(III.) 10n=10×10×…10 (n times)
n!=n×(n−1)×(n−2)⋯×1
∵ n≥1000, it can be logically argued that in 10n, only 9 terms are greater in value than terms in n! and that the terms in n! are continuously increasing in value and hence, for n≥1000, it can be concluded that n!≤10n is false.
(IV.) Considering the proof of part II it can be argued that (2n)! is greater than (n!)2 both have n! but, (2n)!n!=2n×(2n−1)⋯×(n+1)>n! as each and every term of LHS is greater than corresponding term of the RHS for n>1000.
Hence, it follows that (2n)!≥nn