. We have three points where
.
These are
x=9,10 and
11.
For x<9, we have f(x)<0 (since all the three terms are negative here).
For 9<x<10, we have f(x)>0 (since only the first term is positive here).
For 10<x<11, we have f(x)<0 (since only the third term is negative here).
For x>11, we have f(x)>0 (since all the three terms are positive here).
So, f(x) should look as shown.
We see that we may have same values of f(x) for different values of x (e.g. for x<9 and 10<x<11).
So, f(x) is not one-one.
We also see that f(x) can vary from −∞ to +∞.
So, f(x) is onto.
Hence, the assertion is true.
Now, the correct statement is: if A→B,x1,x2∈A and x1=x2⟹f(x1)≠f(x2), then f(x) is one-many.
Hence, the reason is false.