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Question

Assertion :Let the function f(x)=x2x+1x12 and g(x)=12+x34, then f(x)=g(x) has two solutions. Reason: f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other.

A
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion
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B
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion
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C
Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
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D
Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
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Solution

The correct option is D Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
f(x)=x2x+1
Substitute f(x)=y
y=x2x+1
x2x+1y=0
x=1±4y32
x=12±y34
Since, x12
x=12+y34
f1(y)=12+y34
f1(x)=12+x34 ....(1)
Given, g(x)=12+x34 .....(2)
From (1) and (2), we have
g(x)=f1(x)
Therefore, f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
Hence, reason is true.
Since ,f(x)=g(x)
f(x)=f1(x)
f(x)=x
x2x+1=x
(x1)2=0
x=1
i.e there is only one solution.
Hence, assertion is incorrect.

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