Between any two real roots of the equation ex sin x = 1, the equation ex cos x = - 1 has
Atleast one root
Let ∝,β(∝<β) be any two real roots of
f(x) = e - x - sin x
Then, f(∝)=0=f(β)
Moreover, f(x) is continuos and differentiable for x ε[∝,β].
Hence, from Rolle's thereom, thereom, there exists atleast one x in ∝,β such t
f′(x)=0⇒−e−x−cos x=0⇒−e−x(1+ex cos x)=0⇒ex cos x=−1.
Hence (a) is the correct answer.