wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Consider a function f:R{1}R{1} defined by f(x)=x+ax1, where a is a real constant. If f is not constant in its domain, then which of the following is/are CORRECT ?

A
domain and range of f are the same
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
(fof)(1x)=1x
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
f(1f(f(x)))f(f(f(1x)))=0
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
D
f has its own inverse
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct options are
A domain and range of f are the same
B (fof)(1x)=1x
C f(1f(f(x)))f(f(f(1x)))=0
D f has its own inverse
y=f(x)=x+ax1
Clearly, domain is R{1}
f(x)=(x1)(x+a)(x1)2=(a+1)(x1)2
Since, f is not constant, hence a1.
Hence f(x) is either always increasing or decreasing, thus one-one.

Now, y=x+ax1
yxy=x+ax(y1)=y+a
x=y+ay1
Clearly, x Domain(f) for all yR{1}
Range =R{1} and thus f is onto.
Therefore f1 is defined.
and f1(x)=x+ax1

We can see f and f1 are same.
Now, (fof)(1x)=fof1(1x)=1x

We can write f(1f(f(x)))f(f(f(1x))) as
f(1f(f1(x)))f(f(f1(1x)))
=f(1x)f(1x)=0 [f(f1(y))=y]

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Inverse of a Function
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon