The correct option is
A np,npqThe Probabilty function for Binomial Distribution
B(n,p)=(nk)pk(1−p)n−kE[X]=∑nk=0k∗(nk)pk(1−p)n−kE[X]=∑nk=1n!(k−1)!(n−k)!pk(1−p)n−k
Let y=k1 and m=n1. Subbing k=y+1 and n=m+1 into the last sum(and using the fact that the limits x=1 and x=n correspond to y=0 and y=n1=m, respectively)
E[X]=∑ny=0(m+1)!(y)!(m−y)!py(1−p)m−yE[X]=p(m+1)∑ny=0(m)!(y)!(m−y)!py(1−p)m−yE[X]=np∑ny=0(m)!(y)!(m−y)!py(1−p)m−y
Acc to binomial theorem
(a+b)m=∑ny=0(m)!(y)!(m−y)!ay(b)m−y
Setting a=p and b=p
E[X]=np∑ny=0(m)!(y)!(m−y)!py(1−p)m−y=np(p+1−p)m=np
Similarly, but this time using y=x2 and m=n2
E[X(X−1)]=∑nk=0k(k−1)∗(nk)pk(1−p)n−k
On Solving with above procedure
E[X(X−1)]=n(n−1)p2
So Variance =E[X2]−E[X]2=EX(X1)+E(X)−E[X]2=n(n1)p2+np−(np)2=np(1−p)