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Question

From mean value theorem, f(b)f(a)=(ba)f1(x1);a<x1<biff(x)=1xthenx1=

A
ab
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B
a+b2
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C
aba+b
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D
abba
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Solution

The correct option is A ab

We have,

f(b)f(a)=(ba)f(x1)

f(x1)=f(b)f(a)(ba)a<x1<b

Given that,

f(x)=1x

f(b)=1b

f(a)=1a

Now,

f(x1)=1b1aba

=ababba

f(x1)=1ab

Given that,

f(x)=1x

f(x)=1x2

So,

1x2=1ab

x2=ab

x=ab

Hence, this is the answer.

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