Given that f(x)=1+x+x22!+x33!+x44!+... up to infinite terms.
The derivative of f(x) is .
A
f(x)
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
2f(x)
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
[f(x)]2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
f(x)x!
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is Af(x) f′(x)=limh→0f(x+h)−f(x)h=limh→01h[(1+(x+h)+(x+h)22!+...)−(1+x+x22!+...)] =limh→01h[(h+2hx2!+3hx23!+...)+terms having h2 and higher powers]=1+x+x22!+....=f(x)