wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Hello sir/ma'am
My doubt is that for an isothermal reversible process why should ∆H = 0? Shouldn't it have some other value because there is a change in volume?( ∆H=∆U+P∆V, ∆U=0 )

Open in App
Solution

  • Well basically the form of the enthalpy is that
  • dH=dE+d(pV)______(not only pdV.)
  • dH=dE+pdV+Vdp
  • For the isothermal process dE=0
  • And for using the ideal gas equation pV=mRT__________(1)
  • Differentiating (1) with v we can write pdV=constant because T is constant
  • And again differentiating equation (1) with p we can write Vdp=0
  • So that last two terms are zero ,too.
  • So that for ideal gas we can say that the enthalpy is zero
  • So in one sentence 'the pV terms becoms the function of constant T'
Yes. Isothermal process have enthalpy change.

But, enthalpy is not only a function of internal energy or temprature.

Change in enthalpy = change in internal energy + change in PV.

In case of isothermal process:

Change in internal energy = 0. And if change in PV is zero enthalpy change is also zero.

It appears that PV change is zero for isothermal process, that is true only for ideal gases. For real gases, it is not so and thus for real gases there is a some enthalpy change when it undergoes an isothermal process.

So, there isn't any contradiction.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Introduction
CHEMISTRY
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon