Question

I am still not understanding the constant velocity of car on the road. These are my doubts:-
1. If the car aquires force=kinetic friction just after surpassing static friction, wouldnt the car at this moment be still at rest as it wasnt in mation already earlier?
2. If not so, then by surpassing kinetic friction, the car is aquiring a net acceleration greater than 0 hence would would uniform velocity still be acheivable when force by engine> kinetic friction. If so, how would it be possible to achieve specific constant velocities under the similar conditions?
Looking forward to your reply.

Answer 1

The problem with this question is that static friction and kinetic friction are not fundamental forces in any way-- they're purely phenomenological names used to explain observed behavior. "Static friction" is a term we use to describe the observed fact that it usually takes more force to set an object into motion than it takes to keep it moving once you've got it started now coming to Ur question who told u that it would be constant .it just can't be .whenever there is force there will be acceleration or deacceleration depending on which direction the force is in .and if there exists force there will be acceleration and the velocity can't be constant in any case...hope u check the question again