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Question

If (2+sinx)(dydx)+(y+1)cosx=0 and y(0)=1, then y(π2) is equal to


A

-23

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B

-13

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C

43

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D

13

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Solution

The correct option is D

13


Explanation of the correct answer:

Step 1: Separating the coefficient as per the variable:

From the equation given in the question,

(2+sinx)(dydx)+(y+1)cosx=0 (i)

(2+sinx)(dy)=-(y+1)cosxdx

1y+1dy=-cosx2+sinxdx (ii)

Step 2: Integrating on both sides:

By applying integration on both sides we get,

1y+1dy=-cosx2+sinxdx

log(y+1)=-log(2+sinx)+log(c)

log(y+1)+log(2+sinx)=log(c)

(y+1)(2+sinx)=c (iii)

where c is the constant of integration.

Step 3: Substituting the given value:

It is given that the value of y(0) is 1.

Therefore, by substituting the value of x as 0 and y as 1, we get the value of c as

(1+1)(2+sin(0))=c

c=2×2

c=4

Step 4: Calculating the value of y(π2):

On substituting the value of x as π2 in equation (iii), we get

(y+1)(2+sin(π2))=4

(y+1)(2+1)=4

(y+1)=43

y=13

Therefore the value of y(π2) turns out to be 13.

Hence, Option (D) is correct.


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