The correct option is B atleast one real root in (−1,0)
Let f(x)=ax44+bx33+cx22+dx
Clearly, f(x) is continuous on [-1,0] and differentiable in (-1,0)
Now, f(0)=0
and f(−1)=a4−b3+c2−d
=a+2c4−b+3d3
=0
⇒f(0)=f(−1)=0
Hence, all the condition of Rolle's theorem are satisfied, so there exists at least one root of f′(x)=0 in [−1,0]
and f′(x)=ax3+bx2+cx+d
So, it has at least one root in [−1,0]