Question

If$a\ne 0,$the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{a}{b}$is $\frac{b}{a}$. State whether the statement is true (T) or false (F).

• A. True
• B. False

Answer 1

The correct option is A True

Define the multiplicative inverse

The multiplicative inverse of a number $x$is given by $x^{-1}$, such that when it is multiplied by its original number, it results in a value equal to$1$.

For any function, $\frac{p}{q}$the multiplicative inverse is the number that when multiplied by $\frac{p}{q}$gives $1.$So the multiplicative inverse for $\frac{p}{q}$ is $\frac{q}{p}$.

$\Rightarrow \frac{p}{q}\times \frac{q}{p}=1$, where $p\ne 0$

Here if $a\ne 0$, then the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{a}{b}$ is $\frac{b}{a}$.

Hence, the given statement is true.