CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
6
You visited us 6 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If A=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥,B=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥ then AB is equal to

A
I
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
2I
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
12I
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is C 12I
We have, AB=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
π(AB)=⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
π(AB)=[sin1(πx)+cos1(πx)00tan1(πx)+cot1(πx)], Subtract the corresponding elements
π(AB)=⎢ ⎢π200π2⎥ ⎥, use the identities sin1x+cos1x=π2=tan1x+cot1x
π(AB)=π2[1001]=π2I, take π2 common
AB=12I

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Introduction
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon