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Question

If A=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥,B=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥ then AB is equal to

A
I
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B
0
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C
2I
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D
12I
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Solution

The correct option is C 12I
We have, AB=1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥1π⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
π(AB)=⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢sin1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥⎢ ⎢ ⎢ ⎢cos1(πx)tan1(πx)sin1(πx)tan1(πx)⎥ ⎥ ⎥ ⎥
π(AB)=[sin1(πx)+cos1(πx)00tan1(πx)+cot1(πx)], Subtract the corresponding elements
π(AB)=⎢ ⎢π200π2⎥ ⎥, use the identities sin1x+cos1x=π2=tan1x+cot1x
π(AB)=π2[1001]=π2I, take π2 common
AB=12I

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