Question

If a man spends = ${\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)}^{th}$ part of money and then earns = $\frac{1}{2}$ part of the remaining money, what part of the money is with him now ?

• A. $\frac{1}{3}$
• B. $\frac{2}{3}$
• C. $\frac{1}{4}$
• D. None of the above

Answer 1

Answer: (C)

$\frac{1}{4}$

Let the money with the man at first be Rs. $1$
Money spent $=\frac{5}{6}\text{of}$ Rs. $1=$ Rs. $\frac{5}{6}$
Remaining money $=$ Rs. $(1-\frac{5}{6})=$ Rs. $\frac{1}{6}$
Money earned $=$ $\frac{1}{2}$ of Rs. $\frac{1}{6}$ $=$ Rs. $\frac{1}{12}$
Total money with the man $=$ Rs. $(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12})=$ Rs. $\frac{3}{12}=$ Rs. $\frac{1}{4}$
The man now has ${\frac{1}{4}}^{th}$ part of the money.