If a menstruating female gets impregnated during her sexually reproductive years, which of the following immediate changes is most likely to occur?
A
Stimulation of testosterone secretion
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B
Inhibition of further ovulation
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C
It leads to the degeneration of ovary
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D
Inhibition of further secretion of progesterone
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Solution
The correct option is B Inhibition of further ovulation
As evident from the graph, the difference between the follicular phase and luteal phase lies in the levels of the hormones secreted. In the luteal phase, the high levels of hormones progesterone and estrogen (ovarian hormones) as compared to LH and FSH (pituitary hormones) do not allow the growth and development of more follicles. Also, we can see that the levels of LH and FSH are quite low as compared to estrogen and progesterone. This shows that the ovarian hormones have a negative feedback mechanism on the pituitary hormones. So, for the next follicular phase to arrive, the ovarian hormones must reduce in level. But in case of pregnancy, it doesn’t happen so. The corpus luteum in the ovary starts producing progesterone and small amounts of estrogen. This will suppress the further growth and development of ovarian follicles and hence ovulation won’t occur as long as pregnancy persists.
Pregnancy doesn't lead to testosterone secretion in females. Testosterone is an androgen (male sex hormone). Its production in the female body is independent of pregnancy. When LH acts on the theca interna layer of the secondary follicles, it leads to the synthesis of androgens. These androgens diffuse into the granulosa cell layers where they are converted into estrogens.
Pregnancy doesn’t lead to degeneration of ovary. Pregnancy leads to the temporary stoppage of the menstrual cycle. Ovary remains active and functional.
Pregnancy does not stop the secretion of progesterone, rather this hormone is required to maintain pregnancy.