If a polynomial, given by $p (x) = K (x - 1) (x - 2) & p (0) = 2,$ Then the value of K is

0

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1

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2

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None of these

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Solution

The correct option is B $1$
Solution:-

Given $p (x) = k (x - 1) (x - 2)$

Also $p (0) = k (- 1) (- 2) = 2$

$\Rightarrow 2 k = 2$

$\Rightarrow k = 1$

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