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Question

If ar>0,rϵN and a1, a2, a3,..., a2n are in AP then
a1+a2na1+a2+a2+a2n1a2+a3+a3+a2n2a3+a4+...+an+an+1an+an+1
is equal to

A
n-1
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B
n(a1+a2n)a1+an+1
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C
n1a1+an+1
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D
none of these
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Solution

The correct option is B n(a1+a2n)a1+an+1
Given a1,a2,a3......,a2n are in A.P
We know that Sn=n2(a1+a2n)=n2(a2+a2n1) and so on
where Sn is the sum of the given A.P
Hence each numerator term can be written as 2Snn
Now let's multiply the numerator and denominator by the common difference d
So the sequence =
1d×{(a1+a2n)da1+a2+(a2+a2n1)da2+a3+.....+(an+an+)dan+an+1}=1d×{(a1+a2n)(a2a1)a1+a2+(a2+a2n1)(a3a2)a2+a3+.....+(an+an+)(an+1an)an+an+1}
Now substitute the value of original numerator in the sequence we get:
2Snn×1d×{(a2a1)a1+a2+(a3a2)a2+a3+........+(an+1an)an+an+1}=2Snn×1d×{(a2a1)+(a3a2)+.......+(an+1an)}
There will be cancellation of terms.
Hence the sequence now becomes :
2Snn×1d×(an+1a1)=(a1+a2n)×n×(an+1a1)nd=n(a1+a2n)×(an+1a1)(an+1a1)
Here we have written nd=(an+1a1)
Since an+1=a1+nd
=n(a1+a2n)×1(an+1+a1)=n(a1+a2n)an+1+a1

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