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Question

If ax=by=cz and b2=ac, then 1x+1z is equal to

A
y
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B
1y
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C
2y
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D
y2
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Solution

The correct option is A 2y
Let ax=by=cz=k, so that a=k1x, b=k1y, c=k1z. Also, b2=ac. Therefore, ⎜ ⎜k1y⎟ ⎟2=k1xk1z, i.e., k2y=k(1x+1z) or 1x+1z=2y

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