wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If arg(z)<0, then arg(z)arg(z) equals

A
π
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
π
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
π2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
π2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is A π
arg(z1z2)=arg(z1)arg(z2) arg(z)arg(z)=arg(zz)=arg(1)=π

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
De Moivre's Theorem
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon