If C0,C1,C2,..............Cn are binomial coefficients then 1n!0!+1(n−1)!1!+1(n−2)!2!+....+10!n! is equal to
A
2n
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B
2n−1n!
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C
2nn!
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D
none of these
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Solution
The correct option is C2nn! Multiplying and dividing the entire expression by n!, we get 1n![n!0!.n!+n!(n−1)!.1!+n!(n−2)!.2!+...n!0!.n!] =1n![nC0+nC1+nC2+...nCn] =1n!(1+x)nx=1 =2nn!.