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Question

If C0,C1,C2,..............Cn are binomial coefficients then 1n!0!+1(n−1)!1!+1(n−2)!2!+....+10!n! is equal to

A
2n
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B
2n1n!
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C
2nn!
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D
none of these
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Solution

The correct option is C 2nn!
Multiplying and dividing the entire expression by n!, we get
1n![n!0!.n!+n!(n1)!.1!+n!(n2)!.2!+...n!0!.n!]
=1n![nC0+nC1+nC2+...nCn]
=1n!(1+x)nx=1
=2nn!.

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