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Question

If x(y+z−x)logx=y(z+x−y)logy=z(x+y−z)logz, then xyyx=zyyz=xzzx


A
True
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B
False
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Solution

The correct option is A True
Let, x(y+zx)logx=y(x+zy)logy=z(x+yz)logz=k.

logx=x(y+zx)k, multiplying by y on both sides,

we get- ylogx=xy(y+zx)k ....(1)

Also, multiplying both sides by z we get- zlogx=zx(y+zx)k ........(2)

And, logy=y(x+zy)k,

multiplying both sides by x, we get-
xlogy=xy(x+zy)k .......(3)

Also, multiplying both sides by z we get- zlogy=zy(x+zy)k ...........(4)

And, logz=z(x+yz)k, multiplying both sides by y, we get- ylogz=yz(x+yz)k .......(5)
Also, multiplying both sides by x we get- xlogz=xz(x+yz)k ..........(6)

Adding 1 and 3, we have- log(xy)(yx)=xyzk

Adding 4 and 5, we have- log(yz)(zy)=xyzk

Adding 2 and 6, we have- log(zx)(xz)=xyzk

Comparing the RHS of above and removing ]log, we have-

(xy)(yx)=(yz)(zy)=(xz)(zx)

Hence proved.

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