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Question

If f(x)=∣ ∣ ∣secxcosxsec2x+cotxcosecxcos2xcos2xcosec2x1cos2xcos2x∣ ∣ ∣ then ππf(x)dx equals

A
0
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B
π
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C
π
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D
None of these
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Solution

The correct option is B π
f(x)=∣ ∣ ∣secxcosxsec2x+cotxcosecxcos2xcos2xcosec2x1cos2xcos2x∣ ∣ ∣
Taking out common cosx from C2
=cosx∣ ∣ ∣secx1sec2x+cotxcosecxcos2xcosxcosec2x1cosxcos2x∣ ∣ ∣
Applying C2C2cosxC1
=cosx∣ ∣ ∣secx0sec2x+cotxcosecxcos2xcosxcos3xcosec2x10cos2x∣ ∣ ∣

f(x)=cosx(cosxcos3x)(cosx1cos2xcosxsin2x)
f(x)=cos5xsin2x
ππf(x)dx=ππcos5xdxππsin2xdx (because f(x) is even in both integrals and

aaf(x)dx=2a0f(x)dx)
=2π0cos5xdx2π0sin2xdx
=02×2π/20sin2xdx
Using 2a0f(x)dx={2a0f(x)dxiff(2ax)=f(x)0iff(2ax)=f(x)}
=4×12×π2=π

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