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Question

If f′(x)=f(x) for all x and f′(0)=4 then f(x) is equal to

A
2e2x
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B
e4x
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C
x4+4x2+4x
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D
4ex
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Solution

The correct option is D 4ex
given f1(x)=f(x)
dfdx=f which is equal to dff=dx
now integrate on both sides , we get lnf(x)=x
which implies f(x)=kex where k is constant.
given f1(0)=4=k
so the equation is f(x)=4ex

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