If ∣∣∣∫baf(x)dx∣∣∣=∫ba|f(x)|dx, a < b, then f(x)=0 has
A
exactly one root in (a, b)
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B
at least one root in (a, b)
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C
no root in (a, b)
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D
none of these
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Solution
The correct option is C no root in (a, b) ∣∣∣∫baf(x)dx∣∣∣≤∫ba|f(x)|dx and the equality occurs only if the graph of y=f(x) lies entirely above or below the x-axis for all x ∈ (a, b). Thus, f(x)=0 has no real root in (a, b).