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Question

If baf(x)dx=ba|f(x)|dx, a < b, then f(x)=0 has

A
exactly one root in (a, b)
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B
at least one root in (a, b)
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C
no root in (a, b)
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D
none of these
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Solution

The correct option is C no root in (a, b)
baf(x)dxba|f(x)|dx
and the equality occurs only if the graph of y=f(x) lies entirely above or below the x-axis for all x (a, b).
Thus, f(x)=0 has no real root in (a, b).

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