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Question

If y=sec−1(x+1x−1)+sin−1(x−1x+1) then dydx is equal to

A
0
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B
x+1
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C
1
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Solution

The correct option is B 0
y=sec1(x+1x1)+sin1(x1x+1)
=cos1(x1x+1)+sin1(x1x+1)=π2
However the above function is defined only for values of x, given by
1x1x+11
i.e. x1x+1+10 and x1x+110
i.e. 2xx+10 and 2x+10
i.e x<1 or 0 and x>1
i.e x0
Hence we have
y=π2,x0dydx=0,x>0

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