If f is one-one and satisfies f′(x)=√1−(f(x))2, then (f−1)′(x)
A
is equal to 1√1−x2
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B
may not exist for every x∈(0,1)
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C
may not be known explicitly
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D
is equal to cos−1(f(x))
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Solution
The correct option is C is equal to 1√1−x2 f′(x)=√1−(f(x))2 let f(x)=y ⇒dydx=√1−y2 ⇒1√1−y2dy=dx integrating on both sides gives sin−1y=x+c ⇒f−1(y)=sin−1y−c ∴f−1(x)=sin−1x−c differentiating w.r.t x on both sides (f−1)′(x)=1√1−x2 Hence, option A.