If f(x)=(1+x)n, then the value of f(0)+f′(0)+f′′(0)2!+...+f′′(0)n! is
A
n
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B
2n
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C
2n−1
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D
none of these
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Solution
The correct option is B2n f(0)=1, f′(x)=n(1+x)n−1,
f′′(x)=n(n−1)(1+x)n−2, ..., fn(x)=n(n−1)...1(1+x)n−n. So f′(0)=n, f′′(0)=n(n−1), ..., fn(0)=n!. Hence the given expression is equal to 1+n+n(n−1)2!+...+n!n!=nC0+nC1+nC2+...+nCn=2n