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Question

If f(x)=(1+x)n, then the value of
f(0)+f(0)+f′′(0)2!++fn(0)n! is

A
n
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B
2n
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C
2n1
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D
2n+1
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Solution

The correct option is B 2n
Given f(x)=(1+x)n

f(0)=1
f(x)=n(1+x)n1
f(0)=n
f′′(x)=n(n1)(1+x)n2
f′′(0)=n(n1)
f′′′(x)=n(n1)(n2)(1+x)n3
f′′′(0)=n(n1)(n2)

f(0)+f(0)+f′′(0)2!+f′′′(0)3!........fnn!

=1+n+n(n1)2!+n(n1)(n2)3!.........n!n!

=1+nC1+nC2+nC3............+nCn

=2n


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