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Question

If f(x)=⎡⎢⎣cosx−sinx0sinxcosx0001⎤⎥⎦ and g(y)=⎡⎢⎣cosy0siny010−siny0cosy⎤⎥⎦, then [f(x)g(y)]−1 is equal to

A
F(x)G(y)
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B
G(y)F(x)
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C
F(x)1G(y)1
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D
G(y1)F(x1)
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Solution

The correct option is B G(y)F(x)
Consider, [F(x)G(y)]1=[G(y)]1[F(x)]1 ....(1)
F(x)=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001
|F(x)|=cos2x+sin2x=1
adj(F(x))=CT=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001T
adj(F(x))=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001
[F(x)]1=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001

or, [F(x)]1=cos(x)sin(x)0sin(x)cos(x)0001
[F(x)]1=F(x) .....(2)
G(y)=cosy0siny010siny0cosy
|G(y)|=1
adj(G(y))=CT=cosy0siny010siny0cosyT
adj(G(y))=cosy0siny010siny0cosy
[G(y)]1=cosy0siny010siny0cosy
[G(y)]1=cos(y)0sin(y)010sin(y)0cos(y)
[G(y)]1=G(y) ....(3)
Substitute the values from (2) and (3) in (1), we get
[F(x)G(y)]1=G(y)F(x)

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