If f(x)=cosx.cos2x.cos4x.cos8x.cos16x, then f′(π4) is
A
√2
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B
1√2
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C
1
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D
none of these
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Solution
The correct option is D none of these Given, f(x)=cosx.cos2x.cos4x.cos8x.cos16x⇒f(π4)=0 Apply ln on both sides, we get ln(f(x))=ln(cosx)+ln(cos2x)+ln(cos4x)+ln(cos8x)+ln(cos16x)1f(x)f′(x)=1cosx(−sinx)+1cos2x(−2sin2x)+.......+1cos16x(−sin16x)f′(x)=−f(x)(tanx+tan2x+tan4x+tan8x+tan16x)