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Question

If f(x)=sin2x0sin1tdt+cos2x0cos1tdt,x[0,π2], then f(x) is equal to

A
f(x)=π6
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B
f(x)=π8
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C
f(x)=π4
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D
f(x)=π2
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Solution

The correct option is C f(x)=π4
We have, f(x)=sin2x0sin1tdt+cos2x0cos1tdt

Put t=sin2θ in 1st integral
so, t0 θ0 and tsin2x θx

and t=cos2ϕ in the second integral, then
So, t0 ϕπ2 and tsin2x ϕx

f(x)=x0θsin2θdθxπ2ϕsin2ϕdϕ
f(x)=x0θsin2θdθ+π2xθsin2θdθ
f(x)=π20θsin2θdθ=π4 (Using Integration by Parts).

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