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Question

If f(x) is a polynomial function such that f(x)f(1x)=f(x)+f(1x) and f(3)=80 then f(x) is equal to:

A
x4+1
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B
x41
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C
1x4
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D
1x4
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Solution

The correct option is D 1x4
f(x)f(1x)=f(x)+f(1x)
f(x)f(1x)f(x)=f(1x)
f(x)=f(1/x)f(1/x)1 (i)
Also, f(x)f(1x)=f(x)+f(1x)
f(x)f(1x)f(1x)=f(x)
f(1x)=f(x)f(x)1 (ii)
On multiplying Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get,
f(x)f(1x)=f(1/x)f(x){f(1/x)1}{f(x)1}
(f(1x)1)(f(x)1)=1 (iii)
Since, f(x) is polynomial function, so (f(x)1) and f(1x)1 are reciprocals of each other. Also, x and 1x are reciprocals of each other.
Thus, Eq. (iii) can hold only when
f(x)1=±xn, where nR
f(x)=±xn+1 but f(3)=80
±3n+1=80 3n=81
3n=34 (3n>0)
n=4
So, f(x)=x4+1

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