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Question

If f (x)= ⎡⎢⎣cosx−sinx0sinxcosx0001⎤⎥⎦ and g(x)=⎡⎢⎣cosx0sinx010−sinx0cosx⎤⎥⎦
then [f(x)g(y)]−1 is equal to

A
f(x)g(y)
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B
f(x1)g(y1)
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C
g(y)f(x)
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D
g(y1)f(x1)
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Solution

The correct option is C g(y)f(x)
[f(x)g(y)]1=(g(y))1(f(x))1

g(y)=cosy0siny010siny0cosy

|g(y)|=cos2y+sin2y=1

cofactors =cosy0siny010siny0cosy

adj (g(y))=cosy0siny010siny0cosy

(g(y))1=adj(g(y))|g(y)|

=cos(y)0sin(y)010sin(y)0cos(y)

=g(y)

f(x)=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001

|f(x)|=cos2x+sin2x=1

Cofactors =cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001

adj(f(x))=cosxsinx0sinxcosx0001

[f(x)]1=cos(x)sin(x)0sin(x)cos(x)0001

=f(x)

So, [f(x)g(y)]1

=[g(y)]1[f(x)]1

=g(y)g(x)

So, the correct option is C

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