wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If f(x)=1sin2x, then f(x) is equal to

A
(cosx+sinx), for x(π/4,π/2)
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
cosx+sinx, for x(0,π/4)
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
(cosx+sinx), for x(0,π/4)
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
D
(cosxsinx), for x(π/4,π/2)
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is B (cosx+sinx), for x(0,π/4)
f(x)=1sin2x=(cosxsinx)2

=|cosxsinx|

={cosxsinx, for 0xπ/4(cosxsinx), for π/4<xπ/2}

f(x)={(cosx+sinx), for 0<x<π/4(cosx+sinx), for π/4<x<π/2}

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon