If f(x)=(x5−1)(x3+1),g(x)=(x2−1)(x2−x+1) and h(x) be such that f(x)=g(x)h(x), then limx→1h(x) is
A
0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
3
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
4
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
E
5
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is D 5 Given, f(x)=(x5−1)(x3+1) and g(x)=(x2−1)(x2−x+1) ∵f(x)=g(x)h(x)∴h(x)=f(x)g(x) limx→1h(x)=limx→1(x5−1)(x3+1)(x2−1)(x2−x+1) =limx→1(x5−1)(x+1)(x2−x+1)(x−1)(x+1)(x2−x+1) =limx→(x5−1)(x−1)(form00) =limx→15x41 (L' Hospital's rule) =5(1)41=5