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Question

If g is the inverse of function of f and f′(x)=sinx, then g′(x) is equal to

A
cos{g(x)}
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B
sin{g(x)}
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C
1sin{g(x)}
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D
None of these
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Solution

The correct option is C 1sin{g(x)}
Since, g is the inverse of function f.
Therefore, g(x)=f1(x)f[g(x)]=x
fg(x)=x
Differentiating both side, w.r.t x
ddx{fg(x)}=ddx(x) for all x
f[g(x)]g(x)=1 for all x
sin{g(x)}g(x)=1
By definition of f(x)
g(x)=1sin{g(x)}

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