wiz-icon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If g′(x)>0 and f′(x)<0 ∀xϵR then

A
f(f(x+1))>f(f(x1))
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
f(g(x1))>f(g(x+1))
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C
g(f(x+1))<g(f(x1))
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
D
g(g(x+1))>g(g(x1))
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution

The correct options are
A f(f(x+1))>f(f(x1))
B f(g(x1))>f(g(x+1))
C g(f(x+1))<g(f(x1))
D g(g(x+1))>g(g(x1))
Point to be noted is that the Monotonically increasing (decreasing) function does not (does too) changes the sign of the inequality between two numbers.
From the data given the function f is monotonically decreasing, whereas g is monotonically increasing in Real domain. Why? because the first order slopes f(x) and g(x) of the functions f and g are, less than and grater than zero respectively.
So as x: x+1>x1
Now f(x+1)<f(x1) ... that is an inequality sign change, (because f is monotonically decreasing). Similarly, g(x+1)>g(x1) i.e no sign change. Now if we apply these functions on both side of the inequality just obtained, one by one, we can see that all the option follows from the given data.

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Newton Raphson Method
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon