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Point of Inflection

If 2 + sin ...

Question

If $(2 + sin x) \frac{d y}{d x} + (y + 1) cos x = 0 a n d y (0) = 1,$ then $y (\frac{π}{2})$ is equal to:

A

\frac{1}{3}

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B

- \frac{2}{3}

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C

- \frac{1}{3}

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D

\frac{4}{3}

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Solution

The correct option is A $\frac{1}{3}$

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Similar questions

Q. If (2+sinx)dy/dx + (y+1)cosx = 0 and y(0) = 0 then y(π/2) is equal to

A) -1/3. B) 4/3. C)1/3. D)-2/3

(2 + sin x) \frac{d y}{d x} + (y + 1) c o s x = 0

y (0) = 1

y (\frac{π}{2})

(2 + sin x) \frac{d y}{d x} + (y + 1) cos x = 0 and y (0) = 1,

y (\frac{π}{2})

(2 + sin x) \frac{d y}{d x} + (y + 1) cos x = 0

y (0) = 1

y = (\frac{π}{2})

cos x \frac{d y}{d x} + y sin x = 1

y (\frac{π}{4}) = \sqrt{2}

y (\frac{- π}{3})

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