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Question

If n>2 then prove that C1(a1)C2×(a2)+.....+(1)n1Cn(an)=a,where Cr=nCr

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Solution

(1x)n=C0+C1(x)+C2(x)2+.......+Cn(x)n.........(1)
Differentiating on both sides
n(1x)n1=0C1+2C2(x)3C3(x)2+......+n(1)n(x)n1......(2)
When x=1
(1) becomes 0=C0C1+C2........+(1)n1Cn
C1C2+C3.....+(1)n1Cn=C0=1
(2) becomes 0=C1+2C23C3+....+(1)nnCn
LHS=C1(a1)C2(a2)+.......+(1)n1Cn(an)
=a(C1C2+C3....+(1)n1Cn)+(C1+2C23C3+....+(1)nnCn)=a(1)+0=a=RHS
LHS=RHS
Hence Proved

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