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Question

If n is a multiple of 3, show that 1n32+(n4)(n5)3(n5)(n6)(n7)4+.....
+(1)r1(nr1)(nr2)....(n2r+1)r+......, is equal to 3n or 1n, according as n is odd or even.

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Solution

Here, n32 is the co efficient of xn4 in 12(1x)2
(n5)(n4)3! is the co efficient of xn6 in 13(1x)3
(n7)(n6)(n5)4! is the co efficient of xn8 in 14(1x)4
and so on
Hence S= the co efficient of xn in
x2(1x)112x4(1x)2+13x6(1x)314x8(1x)4+....
=the co efficient of xn in log{1+x2(1x)1}
But 1+x21x=(1x+x2)(1x)(1+x)(1+x)=1+x31+x2
S= the co efficient of xn in log(1+x3)log(1x2)
If n=6r, the co efficient of xn is 12r from the first series and 13r from the second series.
S=12r+13r=16r=1n
If n=6r+3, the co efficient of xn is 12r+1 from first series and 0 from the second.
S=12r+1=3n

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