If $p, q, r$ denote arbitrary statements, then the logically equivalent of the statement $p \Rightarrow (q \lor r)$ , is

(p \lor q) \Rightarrow r

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

(p \Rightarrow q) \lor (p \Rightarrow r)

Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses

(p \Rightarrow\sim q) \land (p \Rightarrow r)

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

(p \Rightarrow q) \land (p \Rightarrow\sim r)

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!

Open in App

Solution

The correct option is B $(p \Rightarrow q) \lor (p \Rightarrow r)$
p q r $q \lor r p \Rightarrow (q \lor r) (p \Rightarrow q) \lor (p \Rightarrow r)$
T T T T T T
T T F T T T
T F T T T T
T F F F F F
F T T T T T .
F T F T T T
F F T T T T
F F F F T T

Suggest Corrections

Similar questions

p, q, r

p \Rightarrow (q \lor r)

[\sim (\sim p \lor q) \lor (p \land r)] \land (\sim q \land r)

(p \Rightarrow q) \Rightarrow [(r \lor p) \Rightarrow (r \lor q)]

[\sim (\sim p \lor q) \lor (p \land r) \land (\sim q \land r)]

p, q, r

p \Rightarrow (q \lor r)

Join BYJU'S Learning Program