CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
1
You visited us 1 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

If rth and r+1th terms in the expansion of p+qn are equal, then the value of (n+1)qr(p+q) is


A

0

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B

1

Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
C

14

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D

12

No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is B

1


Apply rth term that is Tr=Cr1npn(r1)qr1for the further expansion:

For the expansion of p+qn the general term is given by Tr+1=Crnpnrqr

We know Crn=n!(nr)!r!,

Given that rth and r+1th terms are equal then equate the terms as follows:

Tr=Tr+1Cr1pn(r1)qr1=CrnpnrqrCr1npnr+1qr1=Crnpnrqrn!(nr-1)!(r1)!pnr+1qr1=n!(nr)!(r)!pnrqrn!(nr+1)!(r1)!×(nr)!(r)!n!=pnrqrpnr+1qr1(nr)!(r)(r1)!(nr+1)(nr)!(r1)!=pnr(nr+1)qr(r1)r(nr+1)=p1qr(nr+1)=qppr=qnqr+qpr+qr=qn+q(p+q)r=(n+1)q(n+1)qr(p+q)=1

Hence, the correct option is (B).


flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
3
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Visualising the Terms
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon